"Lord, what must I do to be saved?"

I think that many Christians would want to affirm the following:

1. Slavation comes through Christ alone.

2. Members of non-Christian religions (or people who adhere to no relgion at all) can be saved (and at least some will be).

The motives driving our affirmation of these two statements are, I think, a desire to affirm the traditional beliefs about the salvific uniqueness of Jesus Christ and a sense that it would be grossly unjust for people who, through no fault of their own, fail to come to explicit faith in Jesus to be denied any chance at salvation (either because they haven’t been exposed to the gospel message, or have been exposed to a distorted version of it, for instance).

Of course, it’s possible to simply deny one of the two statements. We could take the strong pluralist view that there are many paths to salvation, all more or less equal. Or we could take the strong exclusivist view that only those who explicitly confess faith in Christ in this life can be saved. The first view entails surrendering the heart of what Christianity has traditionally affirmed, so I’m inclined to take that off the table. And I suspect few of my readers are tempted by the second option, so I won’t address that directly in this post.

How we attempt to reconcile these statements, though, depends on how we answer a host of questions. Questions like “What does salvation consist in?” and “How does Christ save people?” If we say, for instance, that salvation consists simply in God forgiving us by fiat without requiring any response on our part, we could simply say that in virtue of Christ’s work on the cross all people have had their sins forgiven and are therefore saved, whether they know it or not (or, alternatively, that some specific set of people have had their sins forgiven, but not others, and this is entirely a matter of God’s will).

On the other hand, if we say that salvation does require some kind of response on our part, such as turning toward God, repenting of our sins, trying to live a life in accordance with God’s will, etc. (even if we are aided in all this by God’s grace), then we will want to see how someone can do those things without explicit knowledge and/or acceptance of the Christian revelation. One popular move is to see other relgions as vehicles for this kind of journey – the progress that people make along other spiritual paths is “credited” to them as service to God, even if their understanding of the truth (from a Christian perspective) is deficient. They have responded to God, even though their grasp of the god to whom they responded is inadequate. This view is depicted in C.S. Lewis’ The Last Battle when the virtuous Calormene warrior Emeth discovers to his surprise that his misguided service to the false god Tash was counted to him as service to Aslan.

One problem with this view is that it runs the risk of simply saying that all “people of good will” or “all basically decent people” will be saved. For one, how good does one have to be to be saved, and doesn’t this run the risk of turning into a doctrine of works-righteousness? And secondly, if anyone who is “basically good” can be saved, why the need for the Incarnation in the first place?

The problem may be that in trying to figure out how people can be saved without explicit faith in Christ, we’re setting things up in such a way as to make the Incarnation superfluous from the get-go. What’s needed, it seems to me, is a way of thinking abou this that preserves the importance of the Incarnation as a unique act of God for the redemption of humankind but also allows that those without explicitly Christian faith can be saved. We also need to consider how we consider salvation to be “transmitted” – i.e. what kind of connection does someone need to have to the salvific events in order to benefit from them?

Comments

10 responses to “"Lord, what must I do to be saved?"”

  1. Gaius

    But maybe the Incarnation wasn’t quite the event that orthodoxy thinks it was, or perhaps it’s purpose wasn’t quite what orthodoxy thinks it was.

  2. Joshie

    then what does it mean gaius?

  3. jack perry

    I don’t mean any disrespect, but: shouldn’t any discussion of this start with Jesus’ answer to the question? (Matt 19.17 if I understand correctly)

    I don’t have an answer to the question. I liked Karl Rahner’s idea of the “Anonymous Christian”, but it bothers me a lot in other ways.

    I do know that I dislike the popular universalist tendencies. C.S. Lewis’ analogy, for example, strikes me as profoundly wrong-headed. I haven’t read it, so I may have the wrong understanding of it, but I have the same repugnance to what you describe, as I have to the notion that true believers in certain hateful ideologies (Hitler, Stalin, Pol Pot, suicide bombers) are somehow serving God by commanding or orchestrating the deaths of others. — and lest someone exclaim disbeliefe, I have known Christians who are happy to say that (even if they hesitate at Hitler).

    Perhaps though you don’t mean the necessity of “the Incarnation”, but rather “the Crucifixion”? The necessity of the Incarnation (as I vaguely understand it) is because our natures could not, as they were created, be joined to the divine nature as they can now in Christ. Mebbe I’m remembering wrong though.

  4. Lee

    I think Lewis would say that offering service to the true God (even if unknowningly) is incompatible with behaving in a grossly immoral fasion. Since Lewis thinks that we all, deep down, have knowledge of the moral law, I think he would say that the Nazi or whoever was not simply making an innocent mistake! Which seems to go along with Jesus’ answer to the rich young ruler. But, then, hasn’t the Church consistently taught that we can’t earn eternal life by following the commandments? Was Jesus a Pelagian?? 😉

    Regarding the Incarnation vs. the Crucifixion – I wouldn’t want to separate them. It seems to me better to see them both as part of one event by which God was reconciling the world to himself.

    Interestingly, more “objective” theories of the Atonement would seem to allow for more leeway as far as including non-believers. If Jesus made satisfaction for the sins of the whole world, might that not include everyone whether they’re aware of it or not?

  5. Andy

    Great analysis, Lee.

    Isn’t “people of good will” taken directly from a Vatican document on the salvation of non-Christians?

    I like your movements in the direction of theories of the atonement. It all comes down to just what Jesus was doing on the cross. I tend to lean toward some kind of universalism myself oriented around Revelation 21:5 (“I am making all things new”).

    I read an interesting article by Jurgen Moltmann recently about the logic of hell. As usual with Moltmann, I could only figure out about half of what he was saying, but I think it had something to do with the traditional logic of hell being based on our tendency to think we can manipulate God for our own salvation. This is more or less what I make of typical “transactional” theories of the atonement.

  6. jack perry

    I am not a Pelagian, nor do I think salvation is determined by whether one keeps the commandments; after all, if one takes Original Sin seriously, then we understand that no one can keep the commandments without a special grace from God. But neither do I think that we can take lightly the link between one’s disposition towards God and the concrete acts of one’s behavior (and neither did Pope John Paul II, at least not in Veritatis Splendor).

    The question we’re considering isn’t an objective one; it’s subjective. (If I understand the terms “object” and “subject” correctly here.) None of the “Christians-only” types disputes what Jesus accomplished on the cross; they would all affirm that what Christ accomplished, he accomplished once and for all. A few of them might try to dispute that God wants to save everyone, but this can be fixed by pointing to a handful of verses in the Bible. In my experience, that has always dispelled the notion. (Unlike reasoning with a universalist.)

    Rather, what they dispute is whether people can possess a gift that they haven’t accepted. Even a “soft” universalism flies in the face of Christ’s admonitions throughout the Gospel, but take chapter 7 of Matthew for example: “the gate is small and the road is narrow, and few are those who find it;” “not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord’ will enter the kingdom of heaven,” etc. There is no way to read this verse (or many, many others like it) in a way that does not distort Scripture into a plaything of our cultural biases.

    If people are ignorant of the gift, and if their ignorance and miseducation compels them to act in certain ways, then their non-acceptance of the gift remains a fait accompli regardless of their intentions.

    So the problem I (and many others) have with Lewis’ argument is that it is clearly false on its face. Are we seriously going to say that Hitler, or a suicide bomber, looked into the moral law, saw it clearly, knew what it commanded and what its consequences were, then decided to disregard it? We have no more basis for such a conclusion than to say that Hitler is as surely in Hell as sugar is in cotton candy. Moreover, such reasoning suggests that Adam and Eve ought to be considered innocent victims of deception, and not sinners whom God rightly expelled from Paradise.

    I have no reason to imagine that Hitler did not believe sincerely that he was doing God’s will, and I have good reason to believe that he was sincere in his passion. (Here, of course, “God”=”Aryan race”.) I have read serious arguments that Stalin’s, Pol Pot’s, etc. atrocities were also carried out because they genuinely believed in what they were doing: exterminating the Old Man in order to hasten the advent of the New Man necessary for Communism to bloom. Similarly, I have no cause to believe that Christians who exclude homosexuals, prostitutes, or people of different ethnic backgrounds from the Church do not believe sincerely that they are doing the will of God — even though I am convinced that this is wrong, and based on a profoundly mistaken understanding of the purpose of the Church.

    Please note that I myself am probably more of a universalist than I am letting on, and I worry I might have said something heretical here. But this issue bothers me, and I haven’t resolved it.

    I worry most that the popular universalism is the primary explanation for the lack of evangelization and the degeneration of Christian morals, especially in the West. I know for a fact that I cannot be universalist without giving up on Christian virtue (of all sorts, not merely sexual). Nor does it surprise me that people who divorce their “salvation” from their behavior tend to behave in a manner that does not reflect salvation, and thus drive people away from Christ. So if you can be universalist and still live in Christian virtue, then God bless you! You are a better man (or woman) than I.

  7. jack perry

    Argh. I wrote: There is no way to read this verse (or many, many others like it) in a way that does not distort Scripture into a plaything of our cultural biases.

    I meant: There is no way to read this verse (or many, many others like it) in a way that is both consonant with universalism and that does not distort Scripture into a plaything of our cultural biases.

    I also meant to note that in every conversation I’ve ever had with a universalist, if I bring up these verses, they have no alternate interpretation; they simply quote other verses that do not support the universalist position as clearly as these verse from Matthew support a non-universalist position.

    By the way, I apologize: I noticed only now that we were supposed to discuss “slavation”. (Reread point 1.) I’ll go find some Russian and Serbian Orthodox to ask their opinions. 😉

  8. Lee

    Just to clarify: I wasn’t making a universalist argument (actually I wasn’t really arguing for any particular view of the matter). My question isn’t necessarily “Will everyone be saved?” (though that’s a perfectly legitimate question), but rather “Can people who have never heard of the historical Jesus and/or don’t accept the Church’s claims about him be saved, and, if so, what does that say about the nature of salvation that was wrought by Christ?” And as far as I know, virtually all major Christian bodies, including Rome (I’m not sure about Orthodoxy) say that, in principle, it’s possible for non-Christians to be saved. I’m trying to understand how that fits with what I take to be the traditional Christian view that Jesus’ act of redemption is what “opens the door” of salvation, so to speak.

  9. jack perry

    I was wondering if I had gotten off-base by discussing universalism. I didn’t mean to suggest that you were universalist, at any rate, but I do consider Lewis’ view to be a “soft” universalism. It appeals to me, but (as I explained) I don’t see how anyone who embraces it can not be a universalist.

    You’re right about Rome (in drafting the comment, I wrote that the leaders of my own Church seemed to be soft universalists), and my understanding is that Orthodoxy does, too. I have certainly heard Orthodox Christians discuss it, and even say that they have less trouble with it because they don’t take as legalistic a view as Westerners historically have.

    I have read that Pope John Paul II spoke of seeds sown into other religions by the Holy Spirit that made people receptive to the saving work of Christ; I seem to recall reading that early Christians spoke of pre-Christian religions as preparing the way for Christ — hence the story of the Magi. I mentioned Rahner’s idea of the Anonymous Christian, which is that those who do not have an explicit faith still manifest an implicit faith in Christ by their acts: as in, they are receiving the gift.

    In any case, I like the questions you ask in the original post.

  10. Kevin Carson

    I was raised in the Southern Baptist church, and heard the “no other name by which men can be saved” prooftext quoted plenty of times.

    But at the same time, they didn’t believe in infant damnation. Rather, they believed in something called the “age of accountability,” for which I can find no explicit scriptural basis. I don’t see much difference in principle between this and the Catholic ideas of “invincible ignorance” and “baptism of desire.”

    And I don’t think C.S. Lewis was even a “soft” universalist. He used the analogy of a new king, the news of whose reign has not yet reached the people in the provinces. Since those subjects do not know of him by name and are unaware of his claim to the throne, they cannot be said to have personal allegiance to him. But they can still be divided into loyal and disloyal subjects, in a sense, based on whether (given a knowledge of his identity) they *would* declare fealty.

    And in Lewis’ *The Great Divorce*, there were some who deliberately chose to embrace self, and for whom Purgatory then became Hell. Lewis firmly believed in a Hell whose doors were held closed from the inside, by a deliberate choice.

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